Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 03:14

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

I'm a 28-year-old guy who has never been in a relationship, nor can I seem to find someone who wants to be in one with me. Why do I feel like a freak?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

My ex moved on so fast. How can I overcome the pain?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.